Dolores Welborn,” a 28-year-old attorney, is pregnant with her first child. Lately she has been tiring easily and is often short of breath. She has also had periods of light-headedness, cramping in her legs, and a sore tongue.

Objectives: 

The structure of hemoglobin and the role played by iron in the transport of oxygen.

The means by which iron is transported and stored in the body.

The incidence and causes of IDA.

The red blood cell indices and how they are used to characterize anemia.

How IDA is prevented and treated.

 

"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a) Insulin

b) Metformin

c) Glucotrol

d) Precose

Question 3 2 / 2 points

After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Question options:

a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.

b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.

c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.

d) All of the above

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Question options:

a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 5 2 / 2 points

John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Question options:

a) Valgus stress test

b) McMurray circumduction test

c) Lachman test

d) Varus stress test

Question 6 2 / 2 points

The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

Question options:

a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?

Question options:

a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury

b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury

c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle

d) All of the above

Question 8 2 / 2 points

The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?

Question options:

a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s

b) Recent exposure to mumps

c) Vegetarian diet

d) Allergy to iodine

Question 9 2 / 2 points

A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Question options:

a) Rice

b) Carrots

c) Spinach

d) Potatoes

Question 10 2 / 2 points

One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:

Question options:

a) Goiter

b) Abnormal serum calcium

c) Elevated urine biochemical markers

d) Bony fracture

Question 11 2 / 2 points

After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Question options:

a) Elevated TSH

b) Normal TSH

c) Low TSH

d) Undetectable TSH

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Question options:

a) Decreased C-reactive protein

b) Hyperalbuminemia

c) Morning stiffness

d) Weight gain

Question 13 2 / 2 points

The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 14 2 / 2 points

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 15 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.

c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.

d) All of the above

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Question options:

a) Prednisone

b) Metformin

c) Synthroid

d) Cephalexin

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Question options:

a) Gastrocnemius weakness

b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex

c) Numbness in the lateral foot

d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 18 2 / 2 points

You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?

Question options:

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Question 19 2 / 2 points

A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

Question options:

a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

d) All of the above

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

Question options:

a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion

b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions

c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia

d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?

Question options:

a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose

b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

c) Reduces total cholesterol

d) All of the above

Question 22 0 / 2 points

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Anxiety disorder

b) Pheochromocytoma

c) Psychosis

d) All of the above

Question 23 2 / 2 points

The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”

b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”

c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”

d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”

Question 24 2 / 2 points

A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?

Question options:

a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 25 2 / 2 points

A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?

Question options:

a) Check his blood sugar.

b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.

c) Call 911.

d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.

Question 26 2 / 2 points

The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?

Question options:

a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

b) Free T4 and serum calcium

c) Free T3 and T4

d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies

Question 27 2 / 2 points

A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

Question options:

a) Serum calcium

b) TSH

c) Electrolytes

d) Urine specific gravity

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?

Question options:

a) History of hypertension

b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.

c) Her history of diabetes mellitus

d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.

Question 29 2 / 2 points

What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

Question options:

a) 1,200 mg/day

b) 1,000 mg/day

c) 1,300 mg/day

d) 1,500 mg/day

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Question options:

a) Sinus bradycardia

b) Atrial fibrillation

c) Supraventricular tachycardia

d) U waves

Question 31 2 / 2 points

You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:

Question options:

a) Articular

b) Inflammatory

c) Nonarticular

d) A and B

Question 32 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?

Question options:

a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.

b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.

c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.

d) All of the above

Question 33 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?

Question options:

a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.

b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.

c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.

d) None of the above

Question 35 2 / 2 points

The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:

Question options:

a) Apprehension sign

b) Bulge sign

c) Thumb sign

d) None of the above

Question 36 2 / 2 points

Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?

Question options:

a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts

b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis

c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis

d) All of the above

Question 37 2 / 2 points

Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Bone scan

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan

c) X-ray of the foot

d) Culture of the ulcer

Question 38 2 / 2 points

One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

Question options:

a) Bone

b) Synovium

c) Tendons

d) Fascia

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?

Question options:

a) Elevated uric acid level

b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen

c) Decreased urine pH

d) Decreased C-reactive protein

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?

Question options:

a) Myxedema

b) Thyrotoxicosis

c) Cushing’s syndrome

d) Pan-hypopituitarism

Question 42 0 / 2 points

How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

Question options:

a) Once a year

b) Every 6 months

c) Every 3 months

d) Every visit

Question 43 2 / 2 points

A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 44 2 / 2 points

Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

Question options:

a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.

b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.

c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.

d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 45 2 / 2 points

The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?

Question options:

a) Low-dose aspirin

b) Thiazide diuretics

c) Ethambutol

d) All of the above

Question 46 2 / 2 points

Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 47 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.

c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 49 2 / 2 points

The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?

Question options:

a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

b) RAI binds free T4.

c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.

d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

 

"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which statement about confusion is true?

Question options:

a) Confusion is a disease process.

b) Confusion is always temporary.

c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.

d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Question options:

a) Meclizine

b) Diphenhydramine

c) Diamox

d) Promethazine

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

Question options:

a) No activity at all

b) A blank stare

c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily

d) The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 4 2 / 2 points

How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Question options:

a) Every 3 months

b) Every 6 months

c) Annually

d) Whenever there is a problem

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Question options:

a) A teenage male

b) A 65-year-old male

c) A 25-year-old female

d) A 60-year-old female

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a specific test to MS?

Question options:

a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan

c) A lumbar puncture

d) There is no specific test.

Question 7 2 / 2 points

Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Cholinesterase inhibitors

b) Anxiolytics

c) Antidepressants

d) Atypical antipsychotics

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?

Question options:

a) Epidural hematoma

b) Subdural hematoma

c) Subarachnoid hematoma

d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

Question options:

a) CN V

b) CN VII

c) CN IX

d) CN X

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

Question options:

a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.

b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.

c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.

d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

Question options:

a) A female in her reproductive years

b) A 40-year-old African American male

c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily

d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Question options:

a) Dementia

b) Alzheimer’s disease

c) Parkinson’s disease

d) Delirium

Question 13 2 / 2 points

Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?

Question options:

a) Purulent meningitis

b) Chronic meningitis

c) Aseptic meningitis

d) Herpes meningitis

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?

Question options:

a) MRI

b) CT

c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

d) An initial lumbar puncture

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

Question options:

a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body

b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

c) A pain that is worse upon awakening

d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 16 1 / 1 point

Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

Question options:

a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”

c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”

d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

Question options:

a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”

b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”

c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”

d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 18 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?

Question options:

a) Resting tremor

b) Bradykinesia

c) Rigidity

d) Postural instability

Question 19 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?

Question options:

a) Light sensitivity

b) Pulsatile pain

c) Sound sensitivity

d) Experiencing an aura

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?

Question options:

a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.

b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.

c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.

d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

Question 21 2 / 2 points

Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?

Question options:

a) Greater than 25%

b) Greater than 50%

c) Greater than 75%

d) Only for 100% occlusion

Question 22 2 / 2 points

What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?

Question options:

a) Aspirin

b) Ticlopidine

c) Clopidogrel

d) Aspirin and clopidogrel

Question 23 2 / 2 points

Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?

Question options:

a) MRI

b) CT

c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

d) EEG

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?

Question options:

a) Sam-e

b) Saint John’s Wort

c) Melatonin

d) Saw Palmetto

Question 25 0 / 2 points

Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?

Question options:

a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube

b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway

c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week

d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean

Question 26 2 / 2 points

About 90% of all headaches are?

Question options:

a) Tension

b) Migraine

c) Cluster

d) Without pathological cause

Question 27 2 / 2 points

Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Question options:

a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

d) These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

Question options:

a) Glatiramer acetate

b) Natalizumab

c) Fingolimod

d) Glucocorticoids

Question 29 2 / 2 points

The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Question options:

a) Parkinson’s disease

b) Alzheimer’s disease

c) A CVA

d) Bell’s palsy

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?

Question options:

a) Spinothalamic dysfunction

b) Ratcheting

c) Cogwheeling

d) Hand tremors

Question 31 2 / 2 points

Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?

Question options:

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Alzheimer’s disease

d) Huntington’s disease

Question 32 1 / 1 point

Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?

Question options:

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Alzheimer’s disease

d) Delirium

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:

Question options:

a) SLUMS

b) MoCA

c) FAST

d) MMSE

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?

Question options:

a) 1 hour

b) 3 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 12 hours

Question 35 2 / 2 points

When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Question options:

a) Tension

b) Migraine

c) Cluster

d) Stress

Question 36 2 / 2 points

The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Question options:

a) Acetylcholine

b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

c) Dopamine

d) Serotonin

Question 37 2 / 2 points

The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

Question options:

a) 1 month

b) 3 months

c) 6 months

d) 12 months

Question 38 1 / 1 point

A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Question options:

a) Pheochromocytoma

b) Hyperthyroidism

c) Cardiac arrhythmias

d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?

Question options:

a) Benzodiazepines

b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

c) Tricyclic antidepressants

d) Cognitive behavioral therapy

Question 40 1 / 1 point

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Question options:

a) Hypersomnolence

b) Blunted feelings

c) Loss of interest in significant activities

d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?

Question options:

a) Decrease in adrenal size

b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone

c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone

d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone

Question 42 2 / 2 points

The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

Question options:

a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.

b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.

c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.

d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 43 2 / 2 points

After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks

b) 3 weeks

c) 4 weeks

d) 5 weeks

Question 44 2 / 2 points

It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?

Question options:

a) Before the initiation of treatment

b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

c) When switching to a different medication

d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 45 2 / 2 points

A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?

Question options:

a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.

b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.

c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.

d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.

Question 46 1 / 1 point

According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Question options:

a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

d) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 47 1 / 1 point

The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?

Question options:

a) Memory impairment

b) Sexual dysfunction

c) Dry mouth

d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

Question options:

a) GABA

b) Acetylcholine

c) Dopamine

d) Serotonin

Question 49 2 / 2 points

What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?

Question options:

a) 0.05

b) 0.1

c) 0.2

d) 0.3

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?

Question options:

a) Every 30 minutes

b) Every 60 minutes

c) Every 90 minutes

d) Every 180 minutes

Question 51 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?

Question options:

a) Hypercholesterolemia

b) Hypermagnesmia

c) Leukocytosis

d) Decreased TRH

Question 52 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Question options:

a) Sertraline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Citoprolam

d) Imipramine

Question 53 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Question options:

a) Liver function

b) Vision

c) Growth parameters

d) Renal function

Question 54 2 / 2 points

It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c) Substance abuse

d) PTSD

Question 55 2 / 2 points

Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 3 months

d) 6 months

Question 56 2 / 2 points

Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Anxiety

c) Substance-related addictions

d) Gambling

Question 57 1 / 1 point

What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?

Question options:

a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention

b) Personality or environmental problems

c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors

d) Global assessment of functioning

Question 58 2 / 2 points

Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

Question options:

a) CAGE

b) SANE

c) SAD PERSONAS

d) DIGFAST

Question 59 2 / 2 points

Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?

Question options:

a) ADHD

b) Bipolar

c) Depression

d) Anxiety

Question 60 1 / 1 point

Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?

Question options:

a) Substance abuse and medication effects

b) Medical and neurological disorders

c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression

d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 61 1 / 1 point

The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 62 1 / 1 point

Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 63 1 / 1 point

Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 64 1 / 1 point

Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 65 1 / 1 point

Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 66 1 / 1 point

The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 67 1 / 1 point

A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 68 1 / 1 point

Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 69 1 / 1 point

Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 70 1 / 1 point

When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 71 1 / 1 point

A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Question options:

a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

b) Endometrial hyperplasia

c) Vagismus

d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 72 2 / 2 points

A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Question options:

a) Ceftriaxone

b) Doxycycline

c) Acyclovir

d) Metronidazole

Question 73 1 / 1 point

A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?

Question options:

a) Gonorrhea

b) HPV

c) Chlamydia

d) Trichomonas

Question 74 1 / 1 point

A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

Question options:

a) Trichomonas

b) Bacterial vaginosis

c) HPV

d) Herpes simplex virus

Question 75 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Question options:

a) Metronidazole

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Diflucan

d) Doxycycline

Question 76 1 / 1 point

A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Question options:

a) Fluconazole

b) Estrogen vaginal cream

c) Metronidazole

d) Doxycycline

Question 77 2 / 2 points

Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Question options:

a) Filiform/digitate wart

b) Dysplastic cervical lesion

c) Condyloma acuminata

d) Koilocytosis

Question 78 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 79 2 / 2 points

Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Periorbital cellulitis

c) Erysipelas

d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis

Question 80 2 / 2 points

The forced vital capacity is decreased in:

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) Restrictive disease

Question 81 2 / 2 points

The most common cause of CAP is?

Question options:

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

c) Legionella pneumoniae

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 82 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Increased white blood cells

c) Insulin resistance

d) Hyperactivity

Question 83 2 / 2 points

The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

Question options:

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgG

d) IgM

Question 84 2 / 2 points

A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

Question options:

a) The scrotum will be dark.

b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

c) The scrotum will appear milky white.

d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 85 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 86 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 87 1 / 1 point

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 88 1 / 1 point

A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Testicular cancer

b) Inguinal hernia

c) Varicocele

d) All of the above

Question 89 1 / 1 point

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 90 1 / 1 point

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 91 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 92 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

Question options:

a) An ulcer

b) A fissure

c) Lichenification

d) An excoriation

Question 93 2 / 2 points

A bulla is:

Question options:

a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter

b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular

c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid

d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent

Question 94 1 / 1 point

A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?

Question options:

a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 95 1 / 1 point

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 96 1 / 1 point

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 97 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Question options:

a) Prednisone

b) Metformin

c) Synthroid

d) Cephalexin

Question 98 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

Question options:

a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion

b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions

c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions

d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion

Question 99 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a) Insulin

b) Metformin

c) Glucotrol

d) Precose

Question 100 1 / 1 point

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Anxiety disorder

b) Pheochromocytoma

c) Psychosis

d) All of the above

• Posted: 11 Days Ago

MN568 Unit 10 Final Latest…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

Purchase the answer to view it

 

"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"

Question 1

More than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the atria.

True

False

Question 2. 

What are the most common symptoms caused by tachyarrhythmias?

Sweating 

Thirst

Palpitations

Headaches

Question 3. 

For women with known CAD and diabetes, which is most appropriate to assess CAD risk?

ETT

Coronary bypass surgery

Coronary catheterization

ETT with imaging

Question 4. 

Of the following, which is the best answer when asked for an advantage of echocardiogram exercise testing over thallium stress testing?

Does not depend on operator experience

Costs are the same

Results are available more quickly

Doesn’t matter because there are no advantages

Question 5. 

Your patient has uncomplicated pyelonephritis. In deciding your recommended treatment, you consider the most common pathogenic reason for this diagnosis. What pathogen accounts for the majority of pyelonephritis?

E. Coli

Gardnerella Vaginalis

Mycoplasma Hominis

Chlamydia

Question 6. 

What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship?

Ensures that providers honor their commitments to the patient

Obligates the provider to a one-on-one relationship with the individual

Ensures that patients receive whatever they want

Maintains costs in the healthcare arena

Question 7. 

In CAD, after both systolic and diastolic dysfunction have occurred, the typical pattern of chest pain and related EKG changes occur. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade. Is this true or false?

True

False

Question 8. 

The leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. Is this true or false?

True

False

Question 9. 

Skin cancer is the most common malignant neoplasm in males in the US. What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men greater than 50 years of age?

Prostate cancer

Lung cancer

Lymphoma

Lupus

Question 10. 

What ECG changes can reduce the specificity of the ETT?

Exercise induced bundle branch blocks

Paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block

Paced rhythm and exercise induced bundle branch blocks

Low voltage up sloping of the ST-segment

Question 11. 

You have confirmed that your patient does indeed have an abdominal aortic aneurysm. In teaching your patient about symptoms to report immediately to the vascular surgeon, you instruct the patient to report which of the following?

Newly diagnosed diabetes

Back pain or flank pain

Visual disturbances

Headaches

Question 12. 

What is one of the common causes of a Saccular Abdominal Aneurysm?

Poor kidney functioning

Age

Drugs: illicit and prescribed

Trauma

Question 13. 

The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men for what reasons?

Women having thinner ventricular and septal muscles

Women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease

Women cannot exercise as vigorously as men

Women typically have multiple vessel disease

Question 14. 

Population disease management is a term used to describe:

High specificity disease states

Low specificity diseases states

Low prevalence specific diseases

High prevalence specific diseases

Question 15. 

You receive a report back on the suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm for your patient. It confirms your suspicion of AAA. The report describes the aneurysm as a symmetric weakness of the entire circumference of the aorta. You know that this form of aneurysm is referred to as what kind of aneurysm?

Thoracic aneurysm

Budging sac aneurysm

Saccular aneurysm

Fusiform aneurysm

Question 16. 

Your practice partner just ordered an exercise echocardiography 2DE for a patient with suspected cardiovascular risk. This patient has known resting wall motion abnormalities.Why would this not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk?

Sensitivity is increased

Sensitivity is decreased

Specificity is increased

Specificity is decreased

Question 17. 

Your 60-year old male patient arrives for his appointment. He complains of general malaise and fever over the past several days with low back pain. He also states that he is getting up at night more often to urinate and never feels his bladder is completely empty.What differential diagnosis should you consider in this patient?

Acute viral prostatitis

Stomach virus

Acute bacterial prostatitis

BPH only

Question 18. 

We all know that collaboration is integral to becoming a successful nurse practitioner. Among collaborations, however, only one can be considered as the most important. While each example below is important, which is the most important collaboration? The one that occurs:

Between the nurse practitioner and their physician mentor

Between two healthcare providers about a single patient

Between the patient and their family

Between the patient and the nurse practitioner

Question 19. 

The sensitivity of a routine ETT is effort dependent. What physiological changes occur during effort in the routine ETT?

Rapid heart rates and coronary artery narrowing

Decrease in coronary blood flow

Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure

Increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure

Question 20. 

A 47-year old female with general complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath shows up in your clinic as a referral from another nurse practitioner. Several blood tests and chest x-rays have been completed without any diagnosis or outstanding abnormalities.You decide to order an ETT despite the fact that the recent ECG does not show any abnormalities. From the answers below, which would be the best answer to support your decision?

You are out of other options

CAD in women is under diagnosed

To please the patient

Women present with the same pattern of CAD as do males

Question 21. 

Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment.What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care?

: This patient needs to see someone more experienced in treatment of CAD

These changes are predictive of myocardial infarction

These changes have minimal predictive value for CAD

These changes predict dire outcomes

Question 22. 

When there is a consequential loss of structural integrity of the abdominal aorta, the resulting issue is what condition?

Bloated stomach

Kidney failure

Bleeding ulcers

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Question 23. 

You see a 60-year old African American male in your clinic with a recent diagnosis of hypertension. He asks you what he should restrict in his diet, and is particularly interested in limiting his sodium intake. What amount of sodium intake would you recommend on a daily basis for this patient?

1.5 g/day

No added table salt

3.0 g/day

2.3 g/day

Question 24. 

Why would inability to exercise reduce the specificity of the routine ETT?

Produces QRS changes that cannot be interpreted

Produces persistent ST-segmental changes and T-wave abnormalities

Causes ST-segment changes and P-wave abnormalities

Will not produce any changes in ECG

Question 25. 

By standard criteria, how is a positive stress test defined?

Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm

Down sloping of the ST-segment at the J point of the QRS

Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 10mm

Upward sloping ST-segment measured at the J point of the QRS

Question 26. 

What are the two types of bradycardia recognized by the American Heart Association?

Relative and absolute

Absolute and pending

Refractory and non-refractory

Relative and dynamic

Question 27. 

You see a 75-year old female in your clinic today complaining of urinary incontinence. She is otherwise healthy based upon her last visit. She states that her mother told her this would happen someday because it happens to every woman at some age. What would you tell this patient?

This happens to all women as they age

No need to worry. This is normal. Your mother was correct.

This is not an expected condition related to aging.

This happens to men as well and most women before your age.

Question 28.

What do you know regarding ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle?

ETT cannot be used for detection

Difficult to detect by ETT

Requires both for detection of changes by ETT

Easier to detect by ETT

Question 29. 

What three conditions definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD?

Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease

Diabetes, kidney disease and tooth decay

Obesity, slow heart rates and hypertension

Previous MI, hypotension and diabetes

Question 30. 

Specifically, when is an ETT considered to be negative?

Patient has ST-segmental changes with down sloping of greater than 1 mm at 50% of age-predicted maximum heart rate

Patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia

Patient exercises to 20% maximum age-predicted heart rate without induced ischemia

Patient exercises until tired without evidence of induced ischemia

Question 31. 

All patients, even is asymptomatic, require risk stratification according to the Farmingham risk score. At present, ACC/AHA guidelines, however, do not normally support stress tests for asymptomatic patients without addiitonal justification. From the list below, what could be used to justify a ETT in an asymptomatic patient?

A smoker of 3 weeks

A member of congress

Sedentary and wishes to begin aggressive exercise

Developmentally challenged

Question 32. 

BPH is not a risk factor for Prostate cancer. Is this statement true or false?

True

Question 33. 

Spread of genital herpes only occurs during the time period with active lesions. Is this statement true or false?

True

False(not confirm)

Question 34. 

Abdominal aortic aneurysms are often asymptomatic. What percent of AAA’s are discovered in asymptomatic patients?

40%

20%

10%

75%

Question 35. 

Improvements in the delivery and management of healthcare are necessary if we are to improve the overall health of this nation’s population. Which of the following are identified in your readings as strategic in the movement to improve the healthcare system?

President and Congress

Population management and healthcare practice

Socialized medicine and governmental controls

Monetary savings and limited disruption in healthcare delivery

Question 36. 

What are the two main types of heart failure?

Systolic and diastolic

Hopeless and severe

Left sided and main

End diastolic and pressure related

Question 37. 

The majority of all strokes are non-ischemic. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 38. 

When a murmur is first heard, it is important to determine if it is due to a pathological condition or benign. For an experienced practitioner, it is always easy to determine the cause of a murmur merely by listening to the sound. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 39. 

Maintenance of an Isometric ST-segment during exercise is the response of?

A normal heart

Hypo profusion

An abnormal heart

CAD

Question 40. 

The goal of self-management is to specifically do what?

Engage patients in their own care

Engage insurance providers in patient care

Engage providers in patient care

Engage government in greater involvement in patient care

Question 41. 

Your 56-year old patient presents with bradycardia with a rate of 55 and first degree AV block. The patient is hemodynamically stable and is not experiencing any syncope or chest pain. History includes previous myocardial infarction. Home medications include beta blockers, daily aspirin. Lab work is non-significant for electrolyte imbalance. You decided to treat this patient for the arrhythmia to prevent future destabilization. From the choices below, which might be the appropriate first measure to consider?

Add digitalis to control the heart rate

Consult cardiologist immediately for guidance

Discontinue Beta Blocker and replace with another therapy if necessary

Atropine injections

Question 42. 

Your patient is morbidly obese and cannot sit on a bicycle or walk a treadmill. She also has marked and severe emphysema. You need to make an assessment of the risk of significant CAD and your patient’s family says that their relative had their diagnosis based on an ultrasound echocardiography. What facts would influence your decision regarding the family request for echo assessment?

Sensitivity would be increased because of lung disease

Specificity would be increased because of obesity

Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease

Specificity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease

Question 43. 

You are in the clinic with your mentor observing the Echocardiogram exercise test of a 45-year old male that has been experiencing slight chest pressure almost daily during exercise.While observing your patient, your mentor points out that the left ventricle wall is thinning and there is some hyperkinesias of the ventricular wall. From your time in the clinic, you know that this test will be considered to be what type of result?

Negative

Impossible

Positive

Non-readable

Question 44. 

Your patient is newly diagnosed with persistent Atria Fibrillation. You consider electrocardioversion. Before undergoing this procedure you should order the following examination to assess thrombus risk.

X-Ray of chest

Tranesophageal echocardiography

Ultrasound of chest

CT Scan

Question 45. 

Tachyarrhythmias cause a drop in commonly blood pressure, cardiac output, syncope, shortness of breath, and chest pain. What phenomenon most often occurs during these arrhythmias to cause these symptoms?

Shortened diastole

Lengthened diastole

Lengthened systole

Shortened systole

Question 46. 

At what age is atria fibrillation most common?

In childhood

60 years or older

30 years

45 years

Question 47. 

Automaticity is a property common to all cardiac cells. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 48. 

Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see evidence of ischemic changes on the ECG. This would be predictive of what condition?

Stroke

Significant CAD

Impending death

Low risk of CAD

Question 49. 

You tell a patient that he has a murmur. He says he has been told this before, but wonders what causes the unique sounds of a murmur. Which of the following would be your best option?

Turbulent flow of blood

High pressures caused from HTN

There is no reason, it just happens

Almost always from a sclerotic valve

Question 50. 

What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis?

TMP-SMZ

Any antibiotic will treat this diagnosis

Amoxicillin

Penicillin

Question 51. 

Any patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia should be referred 

to a cardiologist for management. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 52. 

Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of:

Self-management support

Interprofessional support

Physician or provider-driven care

Family care givers

Question 53. 

You are considering adding an adjunctive form of testing to detect wall motion abnormalities during the ETT.You select Echocardiography as the added testing. You choose this test because you know that echocardiography does what when added to a standard ETT?

Enhances sensitivity and specificity of CAD detection

Enhances sensitivity while reducing specificity of CAD detection

Enhances specificity while not changing sensitivity of detection for CAD

You like pretty pictures of wall motion

Question 54. 

Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state through federal codes. Each state must offer Medicaid exactly as the federal government prescribes. True or false?

True

False

Question 55. 

What sexually transmitted disease is most widespread in the USA today?

Chlamydia

Gonorrhea

Syphilis

HIV/AIDS

Question 56. 

Your preceptor decides to add Doppler Flow studies to the echocardiogram exercise test for a patient with a recent history of a holistic murmur best auscultated at the left steral boarder. The patient has no history of cardiac surgeries. He asks you what might be the main advantages of adding Doppler Flow for this particular patient. You know from your readings that there are several reasons to add Doppler Flow and below are listed more than one correct reason. Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would be of what additive value during the echocardiogram study?

Detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect

No advantage is seen for this patient

Gives better screen shots of wall abnormalities

Provides assessment of prosthetic valve function

Question 57. 

Sexual partners of a patient with a diagnosed STI should always be examined and treated. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 58. 

Your patient presents with tachycardia. The QRS is measured at 0.10 seconds. Which of the following tachycardias would be an appropriate conclusion based on this information alone?

Ventricular tachycardias

Premature junctional contractions

Atria fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation

Question 59. 

A 65-year old white male arrives in your clinic with general complaints of slight abdominal discomfort. He has a known history of smoking two packs per day for 40 years and hypertension. He also has COPD and has been treated numerous times with oral steroids. You consider several optional diagnoses. Of the ones listed below, which should be included as a potential top suspect in your choice of diagnosis?

Chronic bowel obstruction

Meglacolon

Appendicitis

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Question 60. 

What are the most common mechanisms to produce cardiac arrhythmias?

Decreased automaticity, triggered activity or reentry

Reentry, electrical dysfunction or activity

Stress, hard work or swimming

Enhanced automaticity, triggered activity or reentry

 

"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"

What is your leadership philosophy? In this Assignment, you will explore what guides your own leadership.

To Prepare:

• Identify two to three scholarly resources, in addition to this Module’s readings, that evaluate the impact of leadership behaviors in creating healthy work environments.
• Reflect on the leadership behaviors presented in the three resources that you selected for review.
• Reflect on your results of the CliftonStrengths Assessment, and consider how the results relate to your leadership traits.

The Assignment (2-3 pages):

Personal Leadership Philosophies

Develop and submit a personal leadership philosophy that reflects what you think are characteristics of a good leader. Use the scholarly resources on leadership you selected to support your philosophy statement. Your personal leadership philosophy should include the following:

• A description of your core values
• A personal mission/vision statement
• An analysis of your CliftonStrengths Assessment summarizing the results of your profile
• A description of two key behaviors that you wish to strengthen
• A development plan that explains how you plan to improve upon the two key behaviors you selected and an explanation of how you plan to achieve your personal vision. Be specific and provide examples.
• Be sure to incorporate your colleagues’ feedback on your CliftonStrengths Assessment from this Module’s Discussion 2.

 

"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"