WRITTEN ASSIGNMENT #2

Type written, 5 pages including bibliography/reference page, double spaced and prepared in American Psychological Association (APA) format in appropriate grammar. Must be submitted on time (first week in December). No late assignment will be accepted.

TOPIC: 

CHOOSE ONE OF THE FOLLOWING TOPICS:

1.  CHILDHOOD OBESITY

2.  HYPERTENSION

3.  DIABETES

4.  ALCOHOL AND THE COLLEGE STUDENT

5. Food safety and genetically modified food

The Paper MUST address the follow 5 items. Also see Rubrics for assignments in Content area.

1. Present a description, brief summary and scope of the problem, while examining whether or not television viewing and video games directly impacts on this growing trend. Are there any populations that are at increased risk?

2. Explore the significant rise, possible impact and implications of this problem and the resulting health problems that result from poor nutrition and lack of exercise, which can be life threatening.

3. Discuss and explain why this problem is becoming a significant public health issue. Include any policies/ attempts to combat the problem and the potential stake holders, along with the effectiveness, feasibility and alternatives to these attempts. Are there medical and psychological consequences that persist into adulthood?  Ie- in the case of childhood obesity what is our first lady, Michelle Obama (OR any public figure/celebrity) doing in regards to this topic? Comment on current news/stories on the problem.

4. Discuss the health risks surrounding the problem, which could include but is not limited to diabetes, high blood pressure and other cardiovascular disease and cancer. How do we measure success?

5. Supply data and statistics relevant to this particular topic. What other needs are unmet. 

Top of Form

   

  

Write a sales letter to Marion Wise, a businesswoman who has stayed frequently at Al- Munir Hotels and is one of the group’s most loyal customers. Describes a special offer which you are making to small group of your priority customers. Make a letter as personalized as possible. The letter should include 3 offer: First is going to be a good offer, second is better and third one is the best ( Just because of she has stayed frequently) we should make her feel special. 

I also attached information of Al- Munir Hotel (IMG 0593) 

  

Question 1 A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit is conducting an inservice on targeted therapies. What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session?

A) Targeted therapies achieve the therapeutic benefits of traditional chemotherapy with no risk of adverse effects.
B) Targeted therapies have the potential to provide prophylactic protection against neoplasia in high-risk individuals.
C) Targeted therapies are significantly more cost-effective than traditional chemotherapeutic drugs.
D) Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected.

Question 2 An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions?

A) Dispose of intravenous lines used for chemotherapy administration in a covered trash can in the patient’s room.
B) Use an IV system for administration that includes needles to reduce the risk of accidental spills.
C) Prime the IV tubing with an approved IV solution rather than with the drug itself.
D) Encourage patients who have been receiving chemotherapy to use a bedside commode rather than a toilet.

Question 3 A patient has just received her first dose of imatinib and the nurse on the oncology unit is amending the patient’s care plan accordingly. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in light of this addition to the patient’s drug regimen?

A) Risk for Infection related to bone marrow suppression
B) Risk for Acute Confusion related to adverse neurological effects of imatinib
C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to exaggerated inflammatory response
D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to changes in osmotic pressure

Question 4 A nurse has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug?

A) A 19-year-old male receiving radiotherapy
B) A 25-year-old female with a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia
C) A 39-year-old female with a nonmyeloid malignancy
D) A 47-year-old male with aplastic anemia

Question 5 A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) will imminently begin a course of treatment with rituximab. In order to minimize the risk of adverse effects, what strategy for administration will be adopted?

A) Admitting the patient to the intensive care unit in anticipation of the initial bolus of the drug
B) Administering diphenhydramine 30 minutes prior to the initial dose of rituximab
C) Administering the drug by slow infusion to two peripheral IV sites simultaneously
D) Administering the initial doses by slow infusion while observing for adverse reactions

Question 6 A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered

A) at a rapid infusion rate.
B) at a slow infusion rate.
C) through an IV line primed with vincristine.
D) through a central line.

Question 7 Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse’s following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim?

A) “Have you noticed any bleeding in your gums or cheeks?”
B) “Do you feel like you’re having any pain in your bones?”
C) “Are you experiencing any waves of cool, clammy skin?”
D) “Have you had any shortness of breath lately?”

Question 8 A 67-year-old man who is being treated for prostate cancer is taking epoetin alfa. The nurse will instruct the patient to

A) stop taking the drug after a 2-week period.
B) schedule an appointment to measure hemoglobin twice a week for at least 2 to 6 weeks.
C) schedule an appointment to check if the patient has a high WBC count.
D) begin taking a calcium channel blocker to treat hypertension, which usually develops as an adverse effect of epoetin alfa therapy.

Question 9 A male patient is receiving heparin by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse will instruct the patient and family members to report which of the following should it occur?

A) A skin rash
B) Sudden occurrence of sleepiness and drowsiness
C) Dizziness
D) Presence of blood in urine or stools

abcd

Question 10 A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient’s laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered?

A) Coumadin
B) Alteplase
C) Ticlopidine
D) Protamine sulfate

Question 11 A nurse has been assigned to a 55-year-old woman who has a malignant brain tumor. The patient is receiving her first dose of carmustine. It will be critical for the nurse to observe for which of the following?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Respiratory difficulty
C) Inability to drink fluids for 6 hours
D) Reddish urine

Question 12 A nurse is assessing a patient who has chronic lymphoblastic myelogenous leukemia. The treatment plan includes hydroxyurea (Hydrea). The nurse will assess the patient for which of the following?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Leukopenia
D) Hypoglycemia

Question 13 A patient’s current course of cancer treatment involves the administration of a conjugated monoclonal antibody. What characteristic of the drug is specified by the fact that it is classified as a conjugated drug?

A) The drug is derived from nonhuman sources.
B) The targeted therapy is combined with another substance that causes cell death.
C) The targeted therapy is combination of a monoclonal antibody, a kinase inhibitor, and an inorganic cytotoxin.
D) The drug is able to adapt its pharmacokinetics to the etiology of the patient’s cancer.

Question 14 An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient’s chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs?

A) Cells with a long generation time
B) Cells that lack contact inhibition
C) Cells that have a rapid mitotic rate
D) Cells that lack a blood supply

Question 15 A patient receiving high-dose cisplatin therapy exhibits symptoms of hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to help offset the magnesium losses from the cisplatin therapy?

A) Consuming dairy products
B) Consuming chocolates
C) Drinking 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day
D) Consuming potassium-rich foods

Question 16 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient’s current health status may preclude the use of imatinib?

A) The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled using diet and oral antihyperglycemics.
B) The patient has chronic heart failure resulting in significant peripheral edema.
C) The patient experienced a mild ischemic stroke several years ago and had transient ischemic attacks last year.
D) The patient had a total knee arthroplasty several months earlier.

Question 17 A female patient is prescribed oprelvekin therapy to treat thrombocytopenia. Which of the following should the nurse continuously monitor to determine the efficacy and duration of the oprelvekin therapy?

A) Weight gain
B) Platelet count
C) Red and white blood cell count
D) Cardiac arrhythmias

Question 18 During ongoing assessment of a patient receiving 5-FU therapy, the nurse finds the patient’s platelet count to be 92,000 cells/mm3. The nurse should do which of the following?

A) Consult the prescriber for an increase in dosage
B) Consult the prescriber for a decrease in dosage
C) Consult the prescriber for discontinuation of the drug
D) Continue the therapy as prescribed

Question 19 A nurse has been assigned to a female patient who is to begin chemotherapy. The nurse will initiate the prescribed oprelvekin therapy

A) 6 to 24 hours after chemotherapy.
B) 2 days after chemotherapy.
C) 6 days after chemotherapy.
D) 10 days after chemotherapy.

Question 20 A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team.What aspect of the patient’s condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia?

A) The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and takes oral antihyperglycemics.
B) The patient has had a history of nonadherence to medical treatment.
C) The patient’s bone marrow function is significantly depressed.
D) The patient has decreased renal function.

Question 21 A female patient has follicular non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and is receiving thalidomide (Thalomid). It will be most important for the nurse to monitor this patient for which of the following?

A) Angina
B) Fever
C) Chills and rigors
D) Bleeding

Question 22 When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.)

A) The patient will not develop an infection.
B) The patient will not experience bone pain.
C) The patient will be able to self-administer filgrastim at home.
D) The patient will not develop febrile neutropenia.
E) The patient will not retain fluid.

Question 23 A nurse is to use a single-dose 1 mL vial to administer 0.5 mL of epoetin alfa to a 39-year-old woman who is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia. Which of the following will the nurse do with the unused portion of the drug?

A) Refrigerate the medication for a future use.
B) Discard the unused portion of the drug.
C) Store the medication in the drug cart for the next dose.
D) Put the medication in the freezer compartment of the refrigerator.

Question 24 nurse is discussing oprelvekin therapy with a male patient. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient is the most common adverse effect of the drug?

A) Medullary bone pain
B) Papilledema
C) Fluid retention/weight gain
D) Atrial arrhythmia

Question 25 A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetin alfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in

A) iron-rich foods such as beans and leafy green vegetables.
B) complex carbohydrates and vegetable-source proteins.
C) calcium, such as dairy products, fish and vegetables.
D) protein and low in carbohydrates.

Question 26 A nurse is administering rituximab to a patient via the IV route. The nurse will set the IV pump at 50 mg/hour for the first half hour of the initial infusion. If there are not apparent reactions after 30 minutes of the infusion, the nurse will increase the dosage every 30 minutes by 50 mg/hour until the maximum infusion rate reaches which of the following?

A) 250 mg/hour
B) 300 mg/hour
C) 400 mg/hour
D) 500 mg/hour

Question 27 A 62-year-old patient taking tamoxifen exhibits increased bone and tumor pain along with a local disease flare. The nurse interprets this as an indication of which of the following?

A) A hypersensitivity reaction
B) The tumor responding to treatment
C) Nephrotoxic effects of tamoxifen
D) Cardiomyopathy

Question 28 A male patient is receiving rituximab therapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following would be a priority nursing intervention to reduce the risk for cytotoxicity and tumor lysis syndrome?

A) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal breathing pattern.
B) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal fluid and electrolyte balance.
C) Protect the patient from exposure to infections.
D) Monitor the patient for deterioration in renal function.

Question 29 A patient with a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia has met with her oncologist, who has recommended treatment with the kinase inhibitor imatinib. What route of administration should the nurse explain to the patient?

A) Daily intramuscular injections throughout the course of treatment
B) Peripheral IV administration three times a day for 7 to 10 days
C) Weekly IV infusions over 6 to 8 hours through a central line
D) Oral administration of imatinib in a home setting

Question 30 A 60-year-old patient experienced a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath and was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism in the emergency department. The patient has been started on an intravenous heparin infusion. How does this drug achieve therapeutic effect?

A) By promoting the rapid excretion of vitamin K by the gastrointestinal mucosa
B) By inhibiting the action of vitamin K at its sites of action
C) By inhibiting platelet aggregation on vessel walls and promoting fibrinolysis
D) By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade

Question 31 A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following?

A) Visual function
B) Blood counts
C) Pap test results
D) Liver function

Question 32 Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by

A) slowing the infusion.
B) decreasing the volume used for dilution.
C) decreasing the total volume of the primary IV infusion.
D) administering a dose of 2 units of bleomycin before carmustine.

Question 33 A middle-aged patient has received a diagnosis of GI stromal tumor following an extensive diagnostic workup. Imatinib has been recommended as a component of the patient’s drug regimen. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient?

A) “It’s important that you let us know if you develop any significant swelling or puffiness.”
B) “Try to keep your PICC line dressing as dry as possible at all times.”
C) “You’ll likely experience a lot of dry mouth while you’re taking this drug, so it’s helpful to chew ice chips.”
D) “If you experience significant nausea after taking a dose, stop taking the drug and schedule an appointment at the clinic.”

Question 34 A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases?

A) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Nonsmall cell lung cancer
D) Renal cell carcinoma

Question 35 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy.He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp?

A) Epoetin alfa is normally contraindicated in patients who are receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy.
B) Treatment with epoetin alfa will likely begin 4 to 6 days before Mr. Lepp’s first round of chemotherapy and continue indefinitely.
C) The potential benefits of epoetin alfa must be weighed carefully against the potential adverse effects in cancer patients.
D) Mr. Lepp’s oncologist should have begun treatment with epoetin alfa immediately after he was diagnosed.

Write an argumentative essay where you discuss what way of learning is better online classes or traditional classes. 4-6 pages(1000-1500 words) MLA format. Must be done by 10am ET 04/15/2017. Use the pictures attached to furthermore assist  you in completing this assignment.

Ch. 3

 

 

 

 

Company J and Company K each recently reported the same earnings per share (EPS). Company J’s stock, however, trades at a higher price. Which of the following statements is correct?

 

 

 

 

A. a. Company J must have a higher P/E ratio.
B. b. Company J must have a higher market to book ratio.
C. c. Company J must be riskier
D. d. Company J must have fewer growth opportunities.
E. e. All of the statements above are correct.
Question 2 of 20

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

 

 

 

 

A. a. Many large firms operate different divisions in different industries, and this makes it hard to develop a meaningful set of industry benchmarks for these types of firms.
B. b. Financial ratios should be interpreted with caution because there exist seasonal and accounting differences that can reduce their comparability.
C. c. Financial ratios should be interpreted with caution because it may be difficult to say with certainty what is a “good” value. For example, in the case of the current ratio, a “good” value is neither high nor low.
D. d. Ratio analysis facilitates comparisons by standardizing numbers.
E. e. All of the statements above are correct.
Question 3 of 20

 

Which of the following actions can a firm take to increase its current ratio?

 

 

 

 

A. a. Issue short-term debt and use the proceeds to buy back long-term debt with a maturity of more than one year.
B. b. Reduce the company’s days sales outstanding to the industry average and use the resulting cash savings to purchase plant and equipment.
C. c. Use cash to purchase additional inventory.
D. d. Statements a and b are correct.
E. e. None of the statements above is correct.
Question 4 of 20

 

Which of the following actions will cause an increase in the quick ratio in the short run?

 

 

 

 

A. a. $1,000 worth of inventory is sold, and an account receivable is created. The receivable exceeds the inventory by the amount of profit on the sale, which is added to retained earnings.
B. b. A small subsidiary which was acquired for $100,000 two years ago and which was generating profits at the rate of 10 percent is sold for $100,000 cash. (Average company profits are 15 percent of assets.)
C. c. Marketable securities are sold at cost.
D. d. All of the answers above.
E. e. Answers a and b above.
Question 5 of 20

 

Company A is financed with 90 percent debt, whereas Company B, which has the same amount of total assets, is financed entirely with equity. Both companies have a marginal tax rate of 35 percent. Which of the following statements is correct?

 

 

 

 

A. a. If the two companies have the same basic earning power (BEP), Company B will have a higher return on assets.
B. b. If the two companies have the same return on assets, Company B will have a higher return on equity.
C. c. If the two companies have the same level of sales and basic earning power (BEP), Company B will have a lower profit margin.
D. d. All of the answers above are correct.
E. e. None of the answers above is correct.
Question 6 of 20

 

The Wilson Corporation has the following relationships:

 

Sales/Total assets	2.0
Return on assets (ROA)	4%
Return on equity (ROE)	6%

 

What is Wilson’s profit margin and debt ratio?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 2% and 0.33
B. b. 4% and 0.33
C. c. 4% and 0.67
D. d. 2% and 0.67
E. e. 4% and 0.50

 

Reset Selection

 

 

 

 

Q Corp. has a basic earnings power (BEP) ratio of 15 percent, and has a times interest earned (TIE) ratio of 6. Total assets are $100,000. The corporate tax rate is 40 percent. What is Q Corp.’s return on assets (ROA)?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 7.5%
B. b. 10.0%
C. c. 12.2%
D. d. 13.1%
E. e. 14.5%

 

 

 

 

Kansas Office Supply had $24,000,000 in sales last year. The company’s net income was $400,000. Its total assets turnover was 6.0. The company’s ROE was 15 percent. The company is financed entirely with debt and common equity. What is the company’s debt ratio?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 0.20
B. b. 0.30
C. c. 0.33
D. d. 0.60
E. e. 0.66

 

 

 

Question 9 of 20= Inc.

 

Net income = $200,000

 

Earnings per share = $2.00

 

Stockholders’ equity = $2,000,000

 

Market/Book ratio = 0.20

 

 

 

 

A. a. $20.00
B. b. $ 8.00
C. c. $ 4.00
D. d. $ 2.00
E. e. $ 1.00

 

 

 

 

Taft Technologies has the following relationships:

 

annual sales	$1,200,000
current liabilities	$375,000
days sales outstanding(DSO)(360-day year)	40
Inventory Turnover Ratio	4.8
current ratio	1.2

 

The company’s current assets consist of cash, inventories, and accounts receivable. How much cash does Taft have on its balance sheet?

 

 

 

 

A. -$ 8,333
B. $ 66,667
C. $125,000
D. $200,000
E. $316,667

 

 

 

 

Info Technics Inc. has an equity multiplier of 2.50. The company’s assets are financed with some combination of long-term debt and common equity. What is the company’s debt ratio?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 51.20%
B. b. 26.00%
C. c. 39.36%
D. d. 65.00%
E. e. 60.00%

 

 

 

 

Cutler Enterprises has current assets equal to $5 million. The company’s current ratio is 1.25, and its quick ratio is 0.75. What is the firm’s level of current liabilities (in millions)?

 

 

 

 

A. a. $2.85
B. b. $3.0
C. c. $4.0
D. d. $0.9
E. e. 1.9
Question 13 of 20

 

Lewis Inc. has sales of $3,600,000 per year, all of which are credit sales. Its days sales outstanding is 42 days. What is its average accounts receivable balance? Assume 360 days per year.

 

 

 

 

A. a. $238,090
B. b. $420,000
C. c. $280,000
D. d. $386,000
E. e. $400,000

 

 

 

 

A firm has total interest charges of $20,000 per year, sales of $2,800,000, a tax rate of 40 percent, and a profit margin of 6 percent. What is the firm’s times-interest-earned ratio?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 15
B. b. 12.5
C. c. 11.5
D. d. 15.8
E. e. 16

 

 

 

 

A fire has destroyed many of the financial records at Anderson Associates. You are assigned to piece together information to prepare a financial report. You have found that the firm’s return on equity is 12 percent and its debt ratio is 0.20. What is its return on assets?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 6.40%
B. b. 4.85%
C. c. 9.60%
D. d. 8.50%
E. e. 6.90%

 

 

 

 

Rowe and Company has a debt ratio of 0.20, a total assets turnover of 0.25, and a profit margin of 10 percent. The president is unhappy with the current return on equity, and he thinks it could be doubled. This could be accomplished (1) by increasing the profit margin to 14 percent and (2) by increasing debt utilization. Total assets turnover will not change. What new debt ratio, along with the 14 percent profit margin, is required to double the return on equity?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 0.50
B. b. 0.56
C. c. 0.88
D. d. 0.78
E. e. 0.44

 

 

 

 

Pinkerton Packaging’s ROE last year was 4.5 percent, but its management has developed a new operating plan designed to improve things. The new plan calls for a total debt ratio of 50 percent, which will result in interest charges of $240 per year. Management projects an EBIT of $800 on sales of $8,000, and it expects to have a total assets turnover ratio of 1.6. Under these conditions, the federal-plus-state tax rate will be 40 percent. If the changes are made, what return on equity will Pinkerton earn?

 

 

 

 

A. a. 2.50%
B. b. 13.44%
C. c. 13.00%
D. d. 14.02%
E. e. 14.57%

 

 

 

 

Examining the ratios of a particular firm against the same measures for a small group of firms from the same industry, at a point in time, is an example of

 

 

 

 

A. a. Trend analysis.
B. b. Benchmarking.
C. c. Du Pont analysis.
D. d. Simple ratio analysis.
E. e. Industry analysis.

 

 

 

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

 

 

 

 

A. a. Having a high current ratio and a high quick ratio is always a good indication that a firm is managing its liquidity position well.
B. b. A decline in the inventory turnover ratio suggests that the firm’s liquidity position is improving.
C. c. If a firm’s times-interest-earned ratio is relatively high, then this is one indication that the firm should be able to meet its debt obligations.
D. d. Since ROA measures the firm’s effective utilization of assets (without considering how these assets are financed), two firms with the same EBIT must have the same ROA.
E. e. If, through specific managerial actions, a firm has been able to increase its ROA, then, because of the fixed mathematical relationship between ROA and ROE, it must also have increased its ROE.

 

 

 

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

 

 

 

 

A. a. Suppose two firms with the same amount of assets pay the same interest rate on their debt and earn the same rate of return on their assets and that ROA is positive. However, one firm has a higher debt ratio. Under these conditions, the firm with the higher debt ratio will also have a higher rate of return on common equity.
B. b. One of the problems of ratio analysis is that the relationships are subject to manipulation. For example, we know that if we use some cash to pay off some of our current liabilities, the current ratio will always increase, especially if the current ratio is weak initially, for example, below 1.0.
C. c. Generally, firms with high profit margins have high asset turnover ratios and firms with low profit margins have low turnover ratios; this result is exactly as predicted by the extended Du Pont equation.
D. d. Firms A and B have identical earnings and identical dividend payout ratios. If Firm A’s growth rate is higher than Firm Bs, then Firm A’s P/E ratio must be greater than Firm B’s P/E ratio.
E. e. Each of the above statements is false.