Risk Management In Healthcare Settings.

Risk Management In Healthcare Settings.

Risk Management In Healthcare Settings.

We saw that risk management involves playing the devil’s advocate and asking, “What could go wrong?” Creating scenarios and thinking through situations will help you understand the nature of the risk better. This is your exercise for the week.

Create three fictional incidents for the risk area you selected in Week 1. Write about each scenario in not more than a page. Include the following information about each scenario:

  1. Details of the incident—What, where, when, and who?
  2. Explain the cause—How and why?

Submit your assignment to the W3: Assignment 2 Dropbox by Tuesday, August 9, 2016.

Name your file SUO_HCM4002_W3_A2_LastName_FirstInitial.doc.

On a separate page, cite all sources using the APA style.

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You must proofread your paper. But do not strictly rely on your computer’s spell-checker and grammar-checker; failure to do so indicates a lack of effort on your part and you can expect your grade to suffer accordingly. Papers with numerous misspelled words and grammatical mistakes will be penalized. Read over your paper – in silence and then aloud – before handing it in and make corrections as necessary. Often it is advantageous to have a friend proofread your paper for obvious errors. Handwritten corrections are preferable to uncorrected mistakes.

Use a standard 10 to 12 point (10 to 12 characters per inch) typeface. Smaller or compressed type and papers with small margins or single-spacing are hard to read. It is better to let your essay run over the recommended number of pages than to try to compress it into fewer pages.

Likewise, large type, large margins, large indentations, triple-spacing, increased leading (space between lines), increased kerning (space between letters), and any other such attempts at “padding” to increase the length of a paper are unacceptable, wasteful of trees, and will not fool your professor.

The paper must be neatly formatted, double-spaced with a one-inch margin on the top, bottom, and sides of each page. When submitting hard copy, be sure to use white paper and print out using dark ink. If it is hard to read your essay, it will also be hard to follow your argument.

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Psycho Pharm Quize. – nursing homework essays

Psycho Pharm Quize.

Psycho Pharm Quize.

QUESTION 1

  1. Richard is a 54-year-old male who suffers from schizophrenia. After exhausting various medication options, you have decided to start him on Clozapine. Which of the statements below is true regarding Clozapine?a.Regular blood monitoring must be performed to monitor for neutropenia.b.Clozapine can only be filled by a pharmacy that participates in the REMS program.c.Bradycardia is a common side effect of Clozapine.d.A & Be.All of the above. Psycho Pharm Quize.

3.75 points  

QUESTION 2

  1. Which of the following statements are true?a.First-generation (typical) antipsychotics are associated with a higher incidence of EPS.b.Second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics are associated with a higher risk of metabolic side effects.c.There is evidence that atypical antipsychotics are significantly more effective than typical antipsychotics in the treatment of cognitive symptoms associated with schizophrenia.d.A & Be.A, B, and C. Psycho Pharm Quize.

3.75 points  

QUESTION 3

  1. Cindy is a 55-year-old patient who presents with symptoms consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. The patient has an unremarkable social history other than she consumes two or three glasses of wine per night. Which of the following would be an appropriate therapy to start this patient on?a.Xanax 0.25mg BID PRN Anxietyb.Escitalopram 10mg dailyc.Buspirone 10mg BIDd.Aripiprazole 10mg daily

3.75 points  

QUESTION 4

  1. Mirza is a 75-year-old patient with a long history of schizophrenia. During the past 5 years, she has shown significant cognitive decline consistent with dementia. The patient has been well controlled on a regimen of risperidone 1mg BID. As the PMHNP, the most appropriate course of action for this patient is:a.Increase the risperidone to 1mg QAM, 2mg QPMb.Discontinue risperidone and prescribe a long-acting injectable such as Invega Sustenna.c.Discontinue risperidone and initiate therapy with clozapine.d.Augment the patient’s risperidone with brexpiprazole.

3.75 points  

QUESTION 5

  1. The patient in the previous question states, “I can’t even last 1 more day without feeling like my insides are going to explode with anxiety.” The most appropriate course of action would be:a.Inform the patient to try yoga or other natural remedies until the vortioxetine takes effect.b.Prescribe a short-term course of low dose benzodiazepine, such as alprazolam.c.Prescribe an SNRI, such as venlafaxine, in addition to the vortioxetine.d.Recommend in-patient mental health for the foreseeable future.

3.75 points  

QUESTION 6

  1. Thomas is a 28-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs and symptoms consistent with MDD. He is concerned about starting antidepressant therapy, however, because one of his friends recently experienced erectile dysfunction when he was put on an antidepressant. Which of the following would be the most appropriate antidepressant to start Thomas on?a.Vilazodoneb.Sertralinec.Paroxetined.Citalopram

3.75 points  

QUESTION 7

  1. Stephanie is a 36-year-old female who presents to the clinic with a history of anxiety. Social history is unremarkable. For the last 4 years, she has been well controlled on paroxetine, however she feels “it just doesn’t work anymore.” You have decided to change her medication regimen to vortioxetine 5mg, titrating up to a max dose of 20mg per day based on tolerability. The patient asks, “When can I expect this to start kicking in?” The best response is:a.3 or 4 daysb.1 or 2 weeksc.3 or 4 weeksd.10 weeks

3.75 points  

QUESTION 8

  1. Jane is a 17-year-old patient who presents to the office with signs consistent with schizophrenia. She states multiple times that she is concerned about gaining weight, as she has the perfect prom dress picked out and she finally got a date. Which of the following is the least appropriate choice to prescribe Jane?a.Aripiprazoleb.Olanzapinec.Haloperidold.Brexpiprazole

3.75 points  

QUESTION 9

  1. John is a 41-year old-patient who presents to the clinic with diarrhea, fatigue, and recently has been having tremors. He was diagnosed 19 years ago with bipolar disorder and is currently managed on Lithium 300mg BID. As the PMHNP, you decide to order a lithium level that comes back at 2.3mmol/l. What is the most appropriate course of action?a.Investigate other differential diagnoses for his symptoms.b.Tell John to skip his next four Lithium doses and resume therapy.c.Tell John he needs to go to the hospital and call an ambulance to bring him.d.Prescribe loperamide to treat the diarrhea and ropinirole to treat the tremors

3.75 points  

QUESTION 10

  1. Jordyn is a 27-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with GAD. She is 30 weeks pregnant and has been well controlled on a regimen of sertraline 50mg daily. Jordyn says that “about once or twice a week my husband really gets on my nerves and I can’t take it.” She is opposed to having the sertraline dose increased due to the risk of further weight gain. You have decided to prescribe the patient a short-term course of benzodiazepines for breakthrough anxiety. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate benzodiazepines to prescribe to this patient?a.diazepamb.alprazolamc.clonazepamd.lorazepam

3.75 points  

QUESTION 11

  1. Rebecca is a 32-year-old female who was recently prescribed escitalopram for MDD. She presents to the clinic today complaining of diaphoresis, tachycardia, and confusion. The differential diagnosis for this patient, based on the symptoms presenting, is:a.Panic disorderb.Gastroenteritisc.Abnormal gaitd.Serotonin syndrome

3.75 points  

QUESTION 12

  1. Mark is a 46-year-old male with treatment-resistant depression. He has tried various medications, including SSRIs, SNRI, and TCAs. You have decided to initiate therapy with phenelzine. Which of the following must the PMHNP take into consideration when initiating therapy with phenelzine?a.There is a minimum 7-day washout period when switching from another antidepressant to phenelzine.b.Patient must be counseled on dietary restrictions.c.MAOIs may be given as an adjunctive therapy with SSRIs.d.A & Be.All of the above

3.75 points  

QUESTION 13

  1. Melvin is an 89-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs/symptoms consistent with MDD. Which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate medication to prescribe to this elderly patient?a.nortriptylineb.amitriptylinec.desipramined.trazodone

3.75 points  

QUESTION 14

  1. Earle is an 86-year-old patient who presents to the hospital with a Community Acquired Pneumonia. During stay, you notice that the patient often seems agitated. He suffers from cognitive decline and currently takes no mental health medications. Treatment for the CAP include ceftriaxone and azithromycin. The LEAST appropriate medication to treat Earle’s anxiety is:a.sertralineb.duloxetinec.citalopramd.venlafaxine

3.75 points  

QUESTION 15

  1. Martin is a 92-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs/symptoms consistent with MDD. The patient suffers from glaucoma and just recently underwent surgery for a cataract. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate course of therapy when treating the MDD?a.sertralineb.amitriptylinec.duloxetined.vilazodone

3.75 points  

QUESTION 16

  1. Sam is a 48-year-old male who presents to the clinic with signs and symptoms consistent with GAD & MDD. Which of the following medications would be the LEAST appropriate choice when initiating pharmacotherapy?a.duloxetineb.sertralinec.mirtazapined.buproprion

3.75 points  

QUESTION 17

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  1. Steve is a 35-year-old male who presents to the primary care office complaining of anxiety secondary to quitting smoking cold turkey 2 weeks ago. The patient has a 14-year history of smoking two packs per day. The patient has an unremarkable social history other than a recent divorce from his wife, Brittany. Which of the following would be the LEAST effective medication to treat Steve’s anxiety?a.Buproprionb.Sertralinec.Vareniclined.Alprazolam

3.75 points  

QUESTION 18

  1. Amber is a 26-year-old female who presents to the clinic 6 weeks postpartum. The patient states that she has been “feeling down” since the birth of her son. She is currently breastfeeding her infant. You diagnose the patient with Postpartum depression. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate option in treating her PPD?a.paroxetineb.escitalopramc.citalopramd.sertraline

3.75 points  

QUESTION 19

  1. Which of the following medications, when given intramuscularly, is most likely to cause severe postural hypotension?a.haloperidolb.lorazepamc.benztropined.chlorpromazine

3.75 points  

QUESTION 20

  1. Jason is a 6-year-old child whose mother presents to the clinic with him. The mother says that “he’s not himself lately.” After a thorough workup, you diagnose the patient as having GAD. Which of the following medications would be the LEAST appropriate to prescribe to this child?a.Sertralineb.Paroxetinec.Venlafaxined.Buspirone
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    quize.docx

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What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session

What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session

What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session

Question 1 A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit is conducting an inservice on targeted therapies. What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session? What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session

A) Targeted therapies achieve the therapeutic benefits of traditional chemotherapy with no risk of adverse effects.
B) Targeted therapies have the potential to provide prophylactic protection against neoplasia in high-risk individuals.
C) Targeted therapies are significantly more cost-effective than traditional chemotherapeutic drugs.
D) Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected.

Question 2 An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions?

A) Dispose of intravenous lines used for chemotherapy administration in a covered trash can in the patient’s room.
B) Use an IV system for administration that includes needles to reduce the risk of accidental spills.
C) Prime the IV tubing with an approved IV solution rather than with the drug itself.
D) Encourage patients who have been receiving chemotherapy to use a bedside commode rather than a toilet.

Question 3 A patient has just received her first dose of imatinib and the nurse on the oncology unit is amending the patient’s care plan accordingly. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in light of this addition to the patient’s drug regimen?

A) Risk for Infection related to bone marrow suppression
B) Risk for Acute Confusion related to adverse neurological effects of imatinib
C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to exaggerated inflammatory response
D) Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to changes in osmotic pressure

Question 4 A nurse has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug?

A) A 19-year-old male receiving radiotherapy
B) A 25-year-old female with a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia
C) A 39-year-old female with a nonmyeloid malignancy
D) A 47-year-old male with aplastic anemia

Question 5 A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) will imminently begin a course of treatment with rituximab. In order to minimize the risk of adverse effects, what strategy for administration will be adopted?

A) Admitting the patient to the intensive care unit in anticipation of the initial bolus of the drug
B) Administering diphenhydramine 30 minutes prior to the initial dose of rituximab
C) Administering the drug by slow infusion to two peripheral IV sites simultaneously
D) Administering the initial doses by slow infusion while observing for adverse reactions

Question 6 A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered

A) at a rapid infusion rate.
B) at a slow infusion rate.
C) through an IV line primed with vincristine.
D) through a central line.

Question 7 Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse’s following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim?

A) “Have you noticed any bleeding in your gums or cheeks?”
B) “Do you feel like you’re having any pain in your bones?”
C) “Are you experiencing any waves of cool, clammy skin?”
D) “Have you had any shortness of breath lately?”

Question 8 A 67-year-old man who is being treated for prostate cancer is taking epoetin alfa. The nurse will instruct the patient to

A) stop taking the drug after a 2-week period.
B) schedule an appointment to measure hemoglobin twice a week for at least 2 to 6 weeks.
C) schedule an appointment to check if the patient has a high WBC count.
D) begin taking a calcium channel blocker to treat hypertension, which usually develops as an adverse effect of epoetin alfa therapy.

Question 9 A male patient is receiving heparin by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse will instruct the patient and family members to report which of the following should it occur?

A) A skin rash
B) Sudden occurrence of sleepiness and drowsiness
C) Dizziness
D) Presence of blood in urine or stools

abcd

Question 10 A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient’s laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered?

A) Coumadin
B) Alteplase
C) Ticlopidine
D) Protamine sulfate

Question 11 A nurse has been assigned to a 55-year-old woman who has a malignant brain tumor. The patient is receiving her first dose of carmustine. It will be critical for the nurse to observe for which of the following?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Respiratory difficulty
C) Inability to drink fluids for 6 hours
D) Reddish urine

Question 12 A nurse is assessing a patient who has chronic lymphoblastic myelogenous leukemia. The treatment plan includes hydroxyurea (Hydrea). The nurse will assess the patient for which of the following?

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Leukopenia
D) Hypoglycemia

Question 13 A patient’s current course of cancer treatment involves the administration of a conjugated monoclonal antibody. What characteristic of the drug is specified by the fact that it is classified as a conjugated drug?

A) The drug is derived from nonhuman sources.
B) The targeted therapy is combined with another substance that causes cell death.
C) The targeted therapy is combination of a monoclonal antibody, a kinase inhibitor, and an inorganic cytotoxin.
D) The drug is able to adapt its pharmacokinetics to the etiology of the patient’s cancer.

Question 14 An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient’s chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs?

A) Cells with a long generation time
B) Cells that lack contact inhibition
C) Cells that have a rapid mitotic rate
D) Cells that lack a blood supply

Question 15 A patient receiving high-dose cisplatin therapy exhibits symptoms of hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to help offset the magnesium losses from the cisplatin therapy?

A) Consuming dairy products
B) Consuming chocolates
C) Drinking 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day
D) Consuming potassium-rich foods

Question 16 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient’s current health status may preclude the use of imatinib?

A) The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled using diet and oral antihyperglycemics.
B) The patient has chronic heart failure resulting in significant peripheral edema.
C) The patient experienced a mild ischemic stroke several years ago and had transient ischemic attacks last year.
D) The patient had a total knee arthroplasty several months earlier.

Question 17 A female patient is prescribed oprelvekin therapy to treat thrombocytopenia. Which of the following should the nurse continuously monitor to determine the efficacy and duration of the oprelvekin therapy?

A) Weight gain
B) Platelet count
C) Red and white blood cell count
D) Cardiac arrhythmias

Question 18 During ongoing assessment of a patient receiving 5-FU therapy, the nurse finds the patient’s platelet count to be 92,000 cells/mm3. The nurse should do which of the following?

A) Consult the prescriber for an increase in dosage
B) Consult the prescriber for a decrease in dosage
C) Consult the prescriber for discontinuation of the drug
D) Continue the therapy as prescribed

Question 19 A nurse has been assigned to a female patient who is to begin chemotherapy. The nurse will initiate the prescribed oprelvekin therapy

A) 6 to 24 hours after chemotherapy.
B) 2 days after chemotherapy.
C) 6 days after chemotherapy.
D) 10 days after chemotherapy.

Question 20 A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team.What aspect of the patient’s condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia?

A) The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and takes oral antihyperglycemics.
B) The patient has had a history of nonadherence to medical treatment.
C) The patient’s bone marrow function is significantly depressed.
D) The patient has decreased renal function.

Question 21 A female patient has follicular non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and is receiving thalidomide (Thalomid). It will be most important for the nurse to monitor this patient for which of the following?

A) Angina
B) Fever
C) Chills and rigors
D) Bleeding

Question 22 When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.)

A) The patient will not develop an infection.
B) The patient will not experience bone pain.
C) The patient will be able to self-administer filgrastim at home.
D) The patient will not develop febrile neutropenia.
E) The patient will not retain fluid.

Question 23 A nurse is to use a single-dose 1 mL vial to administer 0.5 mL of epoetin alfa to a 39-year-old woman who is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia. Which of the following will the nurse do with the unused portion of the drug?

A) Refrigerate the medication for a future use.
B) Discard the unused portion of the drug.
C) Store the medication in the drug cart for the next dose.
D) Put the medication in the freezer compartment of the refrigerator.

Question 24 nurse is discussing oprelvekin therapy with a male patient. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient is the most common adverse effect of the drug?

A) Medullary bone pain
B) Papilledema
C) Fluid retention/weight gain
D) Atrial arrhythmia

Question 25 A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetin alfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in

A) iron-rich foods such as beans and leafy green vegetables.
B) complex carbohydrates and vegetable-source proteins.
C) calcium, such as dairy products, fish and vegetables.
D) protein and low in carbohydrates.

Question 26 A nurse is administering rituximab to a patient via the IV route. The nurse will set the IV pump at 50 mg/hour for the first half hour of the initial infusion. If there are not apparent reactions after 30 minutes of the infusion, the nurse will increase the dosage every 30 minutes by 50 mg/hour until the maximum infusion rate reaches which of the following?

A) 250 mg/hour
B) 300 mg/hour
C) 400 mg/hour
D) 500 mg/hour

Question 27 A 62-year-old patient taking tamoxifen exhibits increased bone and tumor pain along with a local disease flare. The nurse interprets this as an indication of which of the following?

A) A hypersensitivity reaction
B) The tumor responding to treatment
C) Nephrotoxic effects of tamoxifen
D) Cardiomyopathy

Question 28 A male patient is receiving rituximab therapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following would be a priority nursing intervention to reduce the risk for cytotoxicity and tumor lysis syndrome?

A) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal breathing pattern.
B) Ensure that the patient maintains a normal fluid and electrolyte balance.
C) Protect the patient from exposure to infections.
D) Monitor the patient for deterioration in renal function.

Question 29 A patient with a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia has met with her oncologist, who has recommended treatment with the kinase inhibitor imatinib. What route of administration should the nurse explain to the patient?

A) Daily intramuscular injections throughout the course of treatment
B) Peripheral IV administration three times a day for 7 to 10 days
C) Weekly IV infusions over 6 to 8 hours through a central line
D) Oral administration of imatinib in a home setting

Question 30 A 60-year-old patient experienced a sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath and was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism in the emergency department. The patient has been started on an intravenous heparin infusion. How does this drug achieve therapeutic effect?

A) By promoting the rapid excretion of vitamin K by the gastrointestinal mucosa
B) By inhibiting the action of vitamin K at its sites of action
C) By inhibiting platelet aggregation on vessel walls and promoting fibrinolysis
D) By inactivating clotting factors and thus stopping the coagulation cascade

Question 31 A male patient has been on long-term bicalutamide (Casodex) therapy. In order to assess adverse effects of the drug therapy, the nurse will closely monitor which of the following?

A) Visual function
B) Blood counts
C) Pap test results
D) Liver function

Question 32 Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by

A) slowing the infusion.
B) decreasing the volume used for dilution.
C) decreasing the total volume of the primary IV infusion.
D) administering a dose of 2 units of bleomycin before carmustine.

 

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Question 33 A middle-aged patient has received a diagnosis of GI stromal tumor following an extensive diagnostic workup. Imatinib has been recommended as a component of the patient’s drug regimen. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient?

A) “It’s important that you let us know if you develop any significant swelling or puffiness.”
B) “Try to keep your PICC line dressing as dry as possible at all times.”
C) “You’ll likely experience a lot of dry mouth while you’re taking this drug, so it’s helpful to chew ice chips.”
D) “If you experience significant nausea after taking a dose, stop taking the drug and schedule an appointment at the clinic.”

Question 34 A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases?

A) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B) Malignant melanoma
C) Nonsmall cell lung cancer
D) Renal cell carcinoma

Question 35 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy.He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse’s response to Mr. Lepp?

A) Epoetin alfa is normally contraindicated in patients who are receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy.
B) Treatment with epoetin alfa will likely begin 4 to 6 days before Mr. Lepp’s first round of chemotherapy and continue indefinitely.
C) The potential benefits of epoetin alfa must be weighed carefully against the potential adverse effects in cancer patients.
D) Mr. Lepp’s oncologist should have begun treatment with epoetin alfa immediately after he was diagnosed.

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Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE) Structure.

Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE) Structure.

Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE) Structure.

Details:

Conceptual models, theories, and empirical indicators are linked and provide a nursing knowledge system to apply the model or theory to nursing practice, research, and education. Advanced-practice nurses are required to understand the linkages as applied to nursing and translate the components into practice.  To continue development of nursing knowledge, advanced practice nurses can create structure to test theory.

General Guidelines:

Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:

  • This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
  • Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
  • This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.
  • You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

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Directions:

Write a 1,000-1,250 word paper examining how the Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE) structure translates into nursing practice based on one of the middle range theories that has been formulated or derived from your preferred conceptual model of nursing. Translate and apply the selected theory to nursing practice using actual examples. Evaluate the theory using the CTE steps below:

  1. Evaluation of the conceptual-theoretical-empirical linkages.
  2. Evaluation of the selected theory.
  3. Evaluation of the empirical indicators.
  4. Evaluation of research findings.
  5. Evaluation of the utility and soundness of the practice theory.

You must proofread your paper. But do not strictly rely on your computer’s spell-checker and grammar-checker; failure to do so indicates a lack of effort on your part and you can expect your grade to suffer accordingly. Papers with numerous misspelled words and grammatical mistakes will be penalized. Read over your paper – in silence and then aloud – before handing it in and make corrections as necessary. Often it is advantageous to have a friend proofread your paper for obvious errors. Handwritten corrections are preferable to uncorrected mistakes.

Use a standard 10 to 12 point (10 to 12 characters per inch) typeface. Smaller or compressed type and papers with small margins or single-spacing are hard to read. It is better to let your essay run over the recommended number of pages than to try to compress it into fewer pages.

Likewise, large type, large margins, large indentations, triple-spacing, increased leading (space between lines), increased kerning (space between letters), and any other such attempts at “padding” to increase the length of a paper are unacceptable, wasteful of trees, and will not fool your professor.

The paper must be neatly formatted, double-spaced with a one-inch margin on the top, bottom, and sides of each page. When submitting hard copy, be sure to use white paper and print out using dark ink. If it is hard to read your essay, it will also be hard to follow your argument.

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Assessing Client Family Progress – nursing homework essays

Learning Objectives

Students will:

· Create progress notes

· Create privileged notes

· Justify the inclusion or exclusion of information in progress and privileged notes (SEE ATTACHED SAMPLE OF PROGRESS AND PRIVILIGED NOTE)

· Evaluate preceptor notes

To prepare:

· Reflect on the client family you selected for the Week 3 Practicum Assignment (SEE ATTACHED WEEK 3 NOTE),

                                                             The Assignment

                 Part 1: Progress Note

Using the client family from your Week 3 Practicum Assignment address in a progress note (without violating HIPAA regulations) the following:

· Treatment modality used and efficacy of approach

· Progress and/or lack of progress toward the mutually agreed-upon client goals

(reference the treatment plan for progress toward goals)

· Modification(s) of the treatment plan that were made based on progress/lack of

progress

· Clinical impressions regarding diagnosis and or symptoms

· Relevant psychosocial information or changes from original assessment (e.g.,

marriage, separation/divorce, new relationships, move to a new

house/apartment, change of job)

· Safety issues

· Clinical emergencies/actions taken

· Medications used by the patient, even if the nurse psychotherapist was not the

one prescribing them

· Treatment compliance/lack of compliance

· Clinical consultations

· Collaboration with other professionals (e.g., phone consultations with physicians,

psychiatrists, marriage/family therapists)

· The therapist’s recommendations, including whether the client agreed to the

recommendations

· Referrals made/reasons for making referrals

· Termination/issues that are relevant to the termination process (e.g., client

informed of loss of insurance or refusal of insurance company to pay for

continued sessions)

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· Issues related to consent and/or informed consent for treatment

· Information concerning child abuse and/or elder or dependent adult abuse,

including documentation as to where the abuse was reported

· Information reflecting the therapist’s exercise of clinical judgment

Note: Be sure to exclude any information that should not be found in a discoverable progress note.

                       Part 2: Privileged Note

· Based on this week’s readings, prepare a privileged psychotherapy note that you would use to document your impressions of therapeutic progress/therapy sessions for your client family from the Week 3 Practicum Assignment. (SEE ATTACHED WEEK 3 NOTE),

In your progress note, address the following:

· Include items that you would not typically include in a note as part of the clinical record.

· Explain why the items you included in the privileged note would not be included in the client family’s progress note.

· Explain whether your preceptor uses privileged notes. If so, describe the type of information he or she might include. If not, explain why.

 
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HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

Throughout your training we are committed to your learning by providing a training and assessment framework that ensures the knowledge gained through training is translated into practical on the job improvements.

You are going to be assessed for: HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

Your skills and knowledge using written and observation activities that apply to your workplace.

Your ability to apply your learning.

Your ability to recognise common principles and actively use these on the job.

All of your assessment and training is provided as a positive learning tool. Your assessor will guide your learning and provide feedback on your responses to the assessment materials until you have been deemed competent in this unit.

How you will be assessed

The process we follow is known as competency-based assessment. This means that evidence of your current skills and knowledge will be measured against national standards of best practice, not against the learning you have undertaken either recently or in the past. Some of the assessment will be concerned with how you apply your skills and knowledge in your workplace, and some in the training room as required by each unit.

The assessment tasks have been designed to enable you to demonstrate the required skills and knowledge and produce the critical evidence to successfully demonstrate competency at the required standard. HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

Your assessor will ensure that you are ready for assessment and will explain the assessment process. Your assessment tasks will outline the evidence to be collected and how it will be collected, for example; a written activity, case study, or demonstration and observation. HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

The assessor will also have determined if you have any special needs to be considered during assessment. Changes can be made to the way assessment is undertaken to account for special needs and this is called making Reasonable Adjustment. HLTWHS002 FOLLOW SAFE WORK PRACTICES FOR DIRECT CLIENT CARE ASSESSMENT

 

What happens if your result is ‘Not Yet Competent’ for one or more assessment tasks?

Our assessment process is designed to answer the question “has the desired learning outcome been achieved yet?” If the answer is “Not yet”, then we work with you to see how we can get there.

In the case that one or more of your assessments has been marked ‘NYC’, your trainer will provide you with the necessary feedback and guidance, in order for you to resubmit your responses.

 

What if you disagree on the assessment outcome?

You can appeal against a decision made in regards to your assessment. An appeal should only be made if you have been assessed as ‘Not Yet Competent’ against a specific unit and you feel you have sufficient grounds to believe that you are entitled to be assessed as competent. You must be able to adequately demonstrate that you have the skills and experience to be able to meet the requirements of units you are appealing the assessment of.

Your trainer will outline the appeals process, which is available to the student. You can request a form to make an appeal and submit it to your trainer, the course coordinator, or the administration officer. The RTO will examine the appeal and you will be advised of the outcome within 14 days. Any additional information you wish to provide may be attached to the appeal form.

 

What if I believe I am already competent before training?

If you believe you already have the knowledge and skills to be able to demonstrate competence in this unit, speak with your trainer, as you may be able to apply for Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

 

Assessor Responsibilities

Assessors need to be aware of their responsibilities and carry them out appropriately. To do this they need to:

Ensure that participants are assessed fairly based on the outcome of the language, literacy and numeracy review completed at enrolment.

Ensure that all documentation is signed by the student, trainer, workplace supervisor and assessor when units and certificates are complete, to ensure that there is no follow-up required from an administration perspective.

Ensure that their own qualifications are current.

When required, request the manager or supervisor to determine that the student is ‘satisfactorily’ demonstrating the requirements for each unit. ‘Satisfactorily’ means consistently meeting the standard expected from an experienced operator.

When required, ensure supervisors and students sign off on third party assessment forms or third party report.

Follow the recommendations from moderation and validation meetings.

How should I format my assessments?

Your assessments should be typed in a 11 or 12 size font for ease of reading. You must include a footer on each page with the student name, unit code and date. Your assessment needs to be submitted as a hardcopy or electronic copy as requested by your trainer.

 

How long should my answers be?

The length of your answers will be guided by the description in each assessment, for example:

Type of Answer Answer Guidelines

 

Short Answer 4 typed lines = 50 words, or

5 lines of handwritten text

Long Answer 8 typed lines = 100 words, or

10 lines of handwritten text = of a foolscap page

Brief Report 500 words = 1 page typed report, or

50 lines of handwritten text = 1foolscap handwritten pages

Mid Report 1,000 words = 2 page typed report

100 lines of handwritten text = 3 foolscap handwritten pages

Long Report 2,000 words = 4 page typed report

200 lines of handwritten text = 6 foolscap handwritten pages

 

How should I reference the sources of information I use in my assessments?

Include a reference list at the end of your work on a separate page. You should reference the sources you have used in your assessments in the Harvard Style. For example:

Website Name – Page or Document Name, Retrieved insert the date. Webpage link.

For a book: Author surname, author initial Year of publication, Title of book, Publisher, City, State

assessment guide

The following table shows you how to achieve a satisfactory result against the criteria for each type of assessment task.

Assessment Method Satisfactory Result Non-Satisfactory Result
You will receive an overall result of Competent or Not Yet Competent for the unit. The assessment process is made up of a number of assessment methods. You are required to achieve a satisfactory result in each of these to be deemed competent overall. Your assessment may include the following assessment types.
Questions All questions answered correctly Incorrect answers for one or more questions
  Answers address the question in full; referring to appropriate sources from your workbook and/or workplace Answers do not address the question in full. Does not refer to appropriate or correct sources.
Third Party Report Supervisor or manager observes work performance and confirms that you consistently meet the standards expected from an experienced operator Could not demonstrate consistency. Could not demonstrate the ability to achieve the required standard
Written Activity The assessor will mark the activity against the detailed guidelines/instructions Does not follow guidelines/instructions
  Attachments if requested are attached Requested supplementary items are not attached
  All requirements of the written activity are addressed/covered. Response does not address the requirements in full; is missing a response for one or more areas.
  Responses must refer to appropriate sources from your workbook and/or workplace One or more of the requirements are answered incorrectly.

Does not refer to or utilise appropriate or correct sources of information

Observation All elements, criteria, knowledge and performance evidence and critical aspects of evidence, are demonstrated at the appropriate AQF level Could not demonstrate elements, criteria, knowledge and performance evidence and/or critical aspects of evidence, at the appropriate AQF level
Case Study All comprehension questions answered correctly; demonstrating an application of knowledge of the topic case study. Lack of demonstrated comprehension of the underpinning knowledge (remove) required to complete the case study questions correctly. One or more questions are answered incorrectly.
  Answers address the question in full; referring to appropriate sources from your workbook and/or workplace Answers do not address the question in full; do not refer to appropriate sources.

 

Assessment cover sheet

Assessment Cover Sheet
Student’s name:  
Assessors Name:   Date:
Is the Student ready for assessment? Yes No
Has the assessment process been explained? Yes No
Does the Student understand which evidence is to be collected and how? Yes No
Have the Student’s rights and the appeal system been fully explained? Yes No
Have you discussed any special needs to be considered during assessment? Yes No
The following documents must be completed and attached
Written Activity Checklist

The student will complete the written activity provided to them by the assessor.

The Written Activity Checklist will be completed by the assessor.

S NYS
Observation / Demonstration

The student will demonstrate a range of skills and the assessor will observe where appropriate to the unit.

The Observation Checklist will be completed by the assessor.

S NYS
Questioning Checklist

The student will answer a range of questions either verbally or written.

The Questioning Checklist will be completed by the assessor.

S NYS
I agree to undertake assessment in the knowledge that information gathered will only be used for professional development purposes and can only be accessed by the RTO:
Overall Outcome Competent Not yet Competent
Student Signature: Date:
Assessor Signature: Date:

 

 

 

Answer each of the Task 1 questions in approximately 200 words. For the following questions, if you do not have a workplace to discuss, please select a healthcare service role you would like to be employed in.

1. Think about a time you have followed safe work practices for direct client care. Describe the situation, discuss the safe work practices you followed throughout the job, discuss any hazards or risks you identified, the steps you took to remove or minimise the hazard and the reporting procedures you followed or would have followed to report hazards, incidents, injuries or client-related risk factors.

 

2. Write a procedure to outline safe work practices for manual handling, aimed at guiding healthcare employees in their work. Your procedure must cover types of hazards expected and control measures for the hazards.

 

3. Create a single page information flier to inform colleagues and clients about safe work practices for infection control. This flyer needs to incorporate standard and additional precautions and the risks of infection. Fliers should be professionally and attractively presented.

 

4. How do you stay up-to-date with safe work practices in regards to workplace systems, equipment and processes in your work?

 

5. Briefly discuss what each of the following symbols mean.

a. Poisons

http://www.rexburgpolice.com/AnimalShelter/Images/AnimalPoison.png

 

b. Emergency equipment

http://thinkworkplacesafety.com.au/media/catalog/product/cache/1/image/265x265/17f82f742ffe127f42dca9de82fb58b1/e/m/emergency_equipment.jpeg

 

c. Personal Protective Equipment

http://www.bigdug.co.uk/images/ppe-must-be-worn-beyond-this-point-safety-sign-from-bigdug-p3840-208828_zoom.jpg

 

d. Sharps

http://www.signsofsafety.net.au/media/catalog/product/cache/1/image/9df78eab33525d08d6e5fb8d27136e95/C/A/CA44.jpg

 

e. Radiation

http://www.clipartbest.com/cliparts/dir/o9e/diro9edrT.jpeg

 

 

6. What is the definition of a hazard?

 

7. What types of hazards would you find in a health setting?

 

8. What strategies can you use to minimise the risk of the above hazards?

 

9. Locate a procedure for hazard identification and outline the steps involved.

 

10. What safety considerations must you be aware of when working in a home-based care situation and what can you do to ensure your safety?

 

11. What are two common sources of infection and how can you minimise the transfer of infectious diseases?

 

12. What are the rights and responsibilities of both workers and employers?

 

13. Briefly discuss the musculoskeletal areas of the body that can be injured through manual handling.

 

 

written/verbal QUESTIONS

The following questions may be answered verbally with your assessor or you may write down your answers. Please discuss this with your assessor before you commence. Short Answers are required which is approximately 4 typed lines = 50 words, or 5 lines of handwritten text.

Your assessor will take down dot points as a minimum if you choose to answer them verbally.

Answer the following questions either verbally with your assessor or in writing.

1. How can you follow safe work practices for direct client care?

 

 

 

 

2. What should you do if you identify any hazards, risks or client-related risk factors in the workplace?

 

 

 

 

3. List four ways you can minimise the risks of manual handling activity.

 

 

 

4. What is the correct technique for lifting?

 

 

 

 

5. Describe and discuss the hierarchy of control.

 

 

 

 

6. How can you follow safe work practices for infection control?

 

 

 

7. What is the procedure for “after exposure” to blood or other body substances?

 

 

 

 

8. What are the infection control standard precautions you should always follow?

 

 

 

 

9. How can you contribute to safe work practices in the workplace?

 

 

 

 

10. How can you remain current with the information required for safety in the workplace?

 

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11. Reflect on your own safe work practices then answer the following questions:

a. How can you maintain your knowledge on current safe work practices?

b. What levels of stress do you have and what would you do to reduce these stress levels?

c. Who could you set up debriefing sessions with to address your needs?

 

 

Developed by Enhance Your Future Pty Ltd 9 HLTWHS002 Follow safe work practices for direct client care Version 1.1 Course code and name

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Nursing Theory Peaceful End Of Life Nursing Theory By Cornelia Ruland And Shirley Moore

Theoretical Assertions and Propositions

 

According to Ruland & Moore, the relational statements identified as theoretical assertions for theory as follows:

A. Monitoring and administering pain relief and applying pharmacological or non-pharmacological interventions contribute to the patient’s experiences of not being in pain.

B. Preventing, monitoring and relieving physical discomfort, facilitating rest, relaxation and contentment, and preventing complications contribute to the patient’s experience of comfort.

C. Including the patient and significant others in decision making regarding patient care, treating the patient with dignity, empathy and respect, and being attentive to the patient’s expressed needs, wishes, and preference contribute to the patient’s experience of dignity and respect.

D. Providing emotional support, monitoring and meeting the patient’s expressed needs for anti anxiety medications, inspiring trust, providing the patient and significant others with guidance in practical issue, and providing physical preference of another caring person if desired contribute to the patient’s experience of being at peace.

E Facilitating participation of significant others’ grief, worries, and questions, and facilitating opportunities for family closeness contribute to the patient’s experience of closeness to significant others or person who care.

 
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Psychiatric Nursing Questions (Final). – nursing homework essays

Psychiatric Nursing Questions (Final).

Psychiatric Nursing Questions (Final).

This quiz will cover the following topics in the attachment, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook.

See the attachment for the open book quizzes and study guide.

                                                Learning Resources

Required Readings

Wheeler, K. (Ed.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.

 

  • attachment

    PsychiatricNursingQuestionsFinal.docx

Quiz: Final Exam

 

 

 

This exam will cover the following topics from the Wheeler textbook, which relate to psychotherapy of individuals:

 

 

· Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy

· Interpersonal Psychotherapy

· Humanistic-Existential and Solution-Focused Approaches to Psychotherapy

· Psychotherapy With Children

· Psychotherapy With Older Adults

· Termination and Outcome Evaluation

 

Learning Resources

 

Required Readings

Wheeler, K. (Ed.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.

 

 

 

 

1. A PMHNP is treating a 25-year-old patient who has a compulsive urge to exercise to excess. When asked to describe why she does so much exercise, she says, “I like the compliments I receive from others on my new level of fitness, and the excitement of getting more attention.” The PMHNP can use feeling-state therapy to help Monique ___________.

  A. return to a normal system of functioning
  B. break the feeling/behavior connection
  C. use more appropriate ways to satisfy needs
  D. all of the above

1 points

Question 2

1. A 43-year-old single mother is seeing the PMHNP at the request of her sister. “My sister thinks I need to come here to talk about my feelings,” the patient reports. The PMHNP learns that the patient has three children from three different men, but is unable to collect appropriate child support payments from any of the biological fathers. Additionally, the woman is barely able to afford her apartment or utilities payments. What is the appropriate response from the PMHNP when using the psychodynamic psychotherapy technique?

  A. Suggesting that the patient goes to church to pray for God’s help
  B. Telling the patient to write letters to the biological fathers requesting money
  C. Suggesting that the patient seek professional legal help
  D. Asking the patient why she thinks it is so hard to get the money she deserves

1 points

Question 3

1. A 35-year-old male patient is being treated for alcohol addiction. He asks for the PMHNP’s cell phone number to use in case of an emergency. When the PMHNP responds that giving her number would be against therapeutic rules, the patient threatens an act of violence to the therapist. What would be the most appropriate response by the PMHNP?

  A. Immediately report the threat to the local police department
  B. Allow the patient to explore his feelings
  C. Review the therapeutic treatment frame
  D. Call the patient the next day to follow up

1 points

Question 4

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is histrionic. Using the supportive psychodynamic therapy model, what is the best statement made by the PMHNP?

  A. “Express your emotion, and do not hold anything back.”
  B. “Let’s not think too much about emotion right now. Let’s focus on what got you upset in the first place.”
  C. A and B
  D. None of the above

1 points

Question 5

1. A 38-year-old patient tells the PMHNP that her father went to jail for selling drugs when she was a child. The patient is visibly upset when discussing what happened. Using a humanistic-existential approach to psychotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate response by the PMHNP?

  A. “How were you feeling at the time when that happened?”
  B. “What are you experiencing now as you share this story?”
  C. “Did you allow yourself to feel anger when your father left?”
  D. “Are able to let go of the painful emotions you felt as a child?”

1 points

Question 6

1. The PMHNP uses therapeutic communication skills while ensuring that the patient understands that he has choices. The PMHNP comprehends and practices motivational interviewing. This is best understood as which of the following?

  A. Give the patient as much time needed to respond to questions and comments.
  B. A statement that both challenges the patient’s resistance and offers an opportunity to discuss the issues allows the patient to argue with him/herself to help produce a desired change.
  C. You must give full attention to the patient because nonverbal and verbal reactions are equally important.
  D. The PMHNP should be ready with a response when communicating with the patient. She understands that silence is also a therapeutic response.

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Advocating For The Nursing Role In Program Design And Implementation.

Advocating For The Nursing Role In Program Design And Implementation.

Advocating For The Nursing Role In Program Design And Implementation.

As their names imply, the honeyguide bird and the honey badger both share an affinity for honey. Honeyguide birds specialize in finding beehives but struggle to access the honey within. Honey badgers are well-equipped to raid beehives but cannot always find them. However, these two honey-loving species have learned to collaborate on an effective means to meet their objectives. The honeyguide bird guides honey badgers to newly discovered hives. Once the honey badger has ransacked the hive, the honey guide bird safely enters to enjoy the leftover honey.

Much like honeyguide birds and honey badgers, nurses and health professionals from other specialty areas can—and should—collaborate to design effective programs. Nurses bring specialties to the table that make them natural partners to professionals with different specialties. When nurses take the requisite leadership in becoming involved throughout the healthcare system, these partnerships can better design and deliver highly effective programs that meet objectives.

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In this Assignment, you will practice this type of leadership by advocating for a healthcare program. Equally as important, you will advocate for a collaborative role of the nurse in the design and implementation of this program. To do this, assume you are preparing to be interviewed by a professional organization/publication regarding your thoughts on the role of the nurse in the design and implementation of new healthcare programs.

To Prepare:

  • Review the Resources and reflect on your thinking regarding the role of the nurse in the design and implementation of new healthcare programs.
  • Select a healthcare program within your practice and consider the design and implementation of this program.
  • Reflect on advocacy efforts and the role of the nurse in relation to healthcare program design and implementation.
  • Review the User Guide for Uploading Media in your Blackboard Classroom by accessing the Kaltura Media Uploader on the Left Navigation Bar in preparation to record your narrated video or audio for this Assignment.

The Assignment: (2–3 pages)

In a 2- to 3-page paper, create an interview transcript of your responses to the following interview questions:

  • Tell us about a healthcare program, within your practice. What are the costs and projected outcomes of this program?
  • Who is your target population?
  • What is the role of the nurse in providing input for the design of this healthcare program? Can you provide examples?
  • What is your role as an advocate for your target population for this healthcare program? Do you have input into design decisions? How else do you impact design?
  • What is the role of the nurse in healthcare program implementation? How does this role vary between design and implementation of healthcare programs? Can you provide examples?
  • Who are the members of a healthcare team that you believe are most needed to implement a program? Can you explain why?

 

 

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Organizational Culture And Values. – nursing homework essays

Organizational Culture And Values.

Organizational Culture And Values.

Prepare a 10-15 slide PowerPoint presentation, with speaker notes, that examines the significance of an organization’s culture and values. For the presentation of your PowerPoint, use Loom to create a voice-over or a video. Refer to the Topic Materials for additional guidance on recording your presentation with Loom. Include an additional slide for the Loom link at the beginning, and an additional slide for References at the end.

  1. Outline the purpose of an organization’s mission, vision, and values.
  2. Explain why an organization’s mission, vision, and values are significant to nurse engagement and patient outcomes.
  3. Explain what factors lead to conflict in a professional practice. Describe how organizational values and culture can influence the way conflict is addressed.
  4. Discuss effective strategies for resolving workplace conflict and encouraging interprofessional collaboration.
  5. Discuss how organizational needs and the culture of health care influence organizational outcomes. Describe how these relate to health promotion and disease prevention from a community health perspective.

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While APA style format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

  • attachment

    rubricfortheorganizationalcultureassignment.docx

  • attachment

    ReportPDF1.pdf

Purpose of organizational mission, vision, and values is accurate and clearly outlined. A detailed explanation of why organizational mission, vision, and values are significant to nurse engagement and patient outcomes is presented. Sound rationale is provided for support. The significance is clearly established. An explanation of factors leading to conflict in a professional practice is clearly presented. How organizational values and culture influence the way conflict is addressed is described in detail. Strong rationale and evidence are provided for support. Effective strategies for resolving workplace conflict and encouraging interprofessional collaboration is discussed. Strong support and rationale are provided to support each strategy. The content is written clearly and concisely. Ideas universally progress and relate to each other. The project includes motivating questions and advanced organizers. The project gives the audience a clear sense of the main idea. The layout is visually pleasing and contributes to the overall message with appropriate use of headings, subheadings, and white space. Text is appropriate in length for the target audience and to the point. The background and colors enhance the readability of the text.

 

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